Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 10 năm 2023 – 2024 sách Chân trời sáng tạo 4 Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global (Có đáp án)

Đề thi cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Globalnăm 2023 – 2024 bao gồm 4 đề kiểm tra kiểm tra khác nhau có đáp án chi tiết kèm theo bảng ma trận đề thi.

Đề kiểm tra cuối kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global được biên soạn với cấu trúc đề rất đa dạng gồm cả đề trắc nghiệm kết hợp tự luận bám sát nội dung chương trình học trong sách giáo khoa. Hi vọng đây sẽ là tài liệu hữu ích cho quý thầy cô và các em ôn tập và củng cố kiến thức, chuẩn bị sẵn sàng cho kì thi cuối học kì 1 lớp 10 sắp tới. Vậy sau đây là nội dung chi tiết 4 Đề thi cuối học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global năm 2023 – 2024, mời các bạn cùng theo dõi tại đây.

1. Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global – Đề 1

1.1 Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 10 học kì 1

PART 1: PHONETICS

Section 1: Mark A, B, C or D to indicate the word pronounced differently from the rest in each of the following questions.

1.

A. tragic
B. alter
C. background
D. animation

2.

A. relieved
B. stereotype
C. envious
D. episode

3.

A. frostbite
B. sitcom
C. emission
D. film

Section 2: Mark A, B, C, or D to indicate the word that differs from the rest in the position of the main stress in each of the following questions.

4.

A. snowflake
B. misty
C. meteor
D. marine

5.

A. nutrient
B. magnitude
C. championship
D. depression

PART 2: GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY

Section 3: Choose the word /phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence.

6. Of the four dresses, which is _________________expensive?

A. the best
B. the most
C. the more
D. the greater

7. She plays the piano __________________ as she sings.

A. as beautifully
B. more beautifully
C. as beautiful
D. the most beautifully

8. John is much ____ I thought.

A. strong
B. more strong
C. stronger than
D. more strong than

9. Life is not so easy for _____ unemployed.

A. the
B. a
C. an
D. Ø

10. There is _______ new English book on the desk.

A. a
B. an
C. the
D. Ø

11. I never listen to _____ radio. In fact I haven’t got ____ radio.

A. a/ a
B. a/ the
C. the/ the
D. the/ a

12. He said that he _________ enter the examination room because he was late.

A. mustn’t
B. couldn’t
C. needn’t
D. might not

13. “I have got a headache.” – “You _________ go to see the doctor.”

A. may
B. could
C. should
D. might

14. He was writing to his friend when he __________a noise.

A. was hearing
B. heard
C. had heard
D. hears

15. She was playing games while he __________a football match.

A. watched
B. watches
C. was watching
D. watching

16. The books he wrote about famous mountain climbers are his greatest ………………………

A. achievable
B. achieve
C. achiever
D. achievements

17. The ……………………… for our trip was quick because we only planned to stay for two nights.

A. prepare
B. preparing
C. preparation
D. prepared

18. Rachel was brought …………….. by her aunt and uncle.

A. off
B. on
C. up
D. out

19. My dad is looking forward to finishing work next year and having more time for his hobbies. The phrase “ finishing work” can be best replaced by……………

A. retiring
B. damaging
C. inheriting
D. combating

20. There’s another …………………idea to help make you happier.

A. surprised
B. surprising
C. surprise
D. surprisingly

21. The coffee was _____ to drink.

A. so strong
B. strong
C. enough strong
D. too strong

22. I am not _____ a car.

A. rich enough to buy
B. too rich enough to buy
C. too poor to buy
D. enough rich to buy

23. The film was ______ through.

A. too long for us to see
B. very long for us to see it
C. too long for us seeing it
D. too long enough for us to see

24. Quick and simple games like Angry Birds can improve players’ mood and ……………them from feeling anxious.

A. cause
B. prevent
C. remind
D. benefit

25. El Nino ……………..a big impact on the Pacific region and affects weather all over the world.

A. makes
B. causes
C. does
D. has

PART 3: WRITING

Section 4: Rewrite each of the following sentences in another way so that it means almost the same as the sentence printed before it.

26. I am keen on extreme sports. (FAN)

=> I ………………………………………………………………………………….

27. Sweden is much colder than Vietnam (THAN)

=> Vietnam …………………………………………………………………….

28. The Andes is longer than all the other mountain ranges in the world.

=> The Andes ………………………………………………………………….

29. It is against the school rules to cheat in the test. (Use a modal verb)

=> You …………………………………………………………………………….

30. It is necessary for young people to consult their parents about future career. (Use a modal verb)

=> Young ………………………………………………………………………….

PART 4: READING

Section 5: Read an article about water conservation. Then answer some questions below.

THINK BEFORE YOU TOSS

Countries around the world have growing mountains of trash because people are throwing out more trash than ever before. How did we become a throwaway society?
First of all, it is now easier to replace an item than to spend time and money to repair it. Thanks to modern manufacturing and technology, companies are able to produce items quickly and inexpensively. Products are plentiful and prices are low, so we would rather buy something new than repair it. Even if we did want to repair something, many items are almost impossible to repair. These products contain many tiny, complicated parts. Some even contain small computer chips. It’s easier to throw these items away and buy new ones than to fix them.
Another contributing factor is our love of disposable products. As busy people, we are always looking for ways to save time and make our lives easier. Why should we use cloth kitchen towels? It’s easier to use paper towel once and toss it out. Companies manufacture thousands of different kinds of disposable items: paper plates, plastic cups, cameras, and razors for shaving, to name a few. The problem is that disposable products also contribute to our trash problem.

Our appetite for new products also contributes to the problem. We are addicted to buying things. As consumers, we want the latest clothes, the best TVs, and cellphones with west features. Companies tell us to buy, buy, and buy. Advertisements persuade us wer is better. The result is that we throw away useful possessions to make room for new ones.

31. Which of the following is NOT a reason for people to replace a broken item?

A. Products are now mass produced at affordable prices.
B. It takes almost no time to fix broken items.
C. Many items are too complicated to repair.
D. Some products contain tiny, complicated chips.

32. All of the following are disposable products, EXCEPT ____.

A. cloth kitchen towels
B. paper plates
C. plastic cups
D. razors for shaving

33. The word “disposable” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ____.

A. convenient
B. inexpensive
C. throwaway
D. single-use

34. Why are we hooked on buying new things?

A. We throw the old items to make room for the new ones.
B. We have more money than ever before.
C. We want to own as many things as possible.
D. We are made to believe that the new is the better.

35. The word “appetite” in the last paragraph can be best replaced by ____.

A. need
B. demand
C. desire
D. taste

Section 6: Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

GLOBAL WARMING

Few people now question the reality of global warming and its effects on the world’s climate. Many scientists (36) ____ the blame for recent natural disasters on the increase in the world’s temperatures and are convinced that, more than (37) ____ before, the Earth is at risk from the forces of the wind, rain and sun. (38) ____ to them, global warming is making extreme weather events, such as hurricanes and droughts, even more (39) ____ and causing sea levels all around the world to (40) _____.

36.
A. give

B. put
C. take
D. have

37.

A. yet
B. never
C. once
D. ever

38.

A. Concerning
B. Regarding
C. Depending
D. According

39.

A. strict
B. severe
C. strong
D. heavy

40.

A. raise
B. arise
C. rise
D. lift

1.2 Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10

1B	2A	3A	4D	5D	6B	7A
8C	9A	10A	11D	12A	13C	14B
15C	16D	17C	18C	19A	20B	21D
22A	23A	24B	25D	31B	32A	33D
34D	35C	36B	37D	38A	39B	40C

26. am a fan of extreme sports

27. is much hotter than Sweden

28. is the longest mountain range in the world

29. must not cheat in the test

30. must consult their parents about future career

2. Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 10 Friends Global – Đề 2

2.1 Đề thi tiếng Anh lớp 10 học kì 1

I. LISTENING

Task 1. LISTEN to audio 1.36 and MATCH the speakers (1-3) with their correct situations (A-D), there is ONE situation that you DON’T NEED.

1/ Speaker 1

2/ Speaker 2

3/ Speaker 3

A. is confused by introductions from artificial intelligence route planning.

B. gets depressed for not performing well in the interview because of bad luck.

C. becomes exhausted because there are so many suggestions for the holiday.

D. is discussing the slogan for a commercial project.

Task 2. LISTEN to audio 1.38 about how video games affect children’s health and WRITE T (True) or F (False) for the following statements (1-7).

1. Video games are believed to have negative effects on young people.

2. A report says that playing video games can be good for children’s education, health and social skills.

3. Thinking in three dimensions helps children with artworks and medicine.

4. In 2018, research showed that children who play role-playing games get better grades at school than those who don’t play them.

5. Children’s creativity can be improved by playing video games.

6. “Angry Birds” can prevent adults from nervousness.

7. Overall, the report reminds us of the benefits of video games.

II. USE OF ENGLISH

Task 1. Choose the word /phrase (A, B, C or D) that best fits the blank space in each sentence

1. How____________ money do you have left?

A. many
B. much
C. a lot
D. lots of

2. There aren’t __________ oranges on the table.

A. much
B. any
C. some
D. an

3. There are ___________ people who would like to come to Ed Sheeran’s concert.

A. a lot of
B. lots
C. a lots of
D. much

4. He had _____________ friends in California.

A. a little
B. any
C. a few
D. lots

5. I think I’ll have _____ milk before I go to bed.

A. a little
B. a few
C. a
D. many

6. Malaysia is ______________ than Canada.

A. much hotter
B. further hotter
C. more hotter
D. much hot

7. My Tho is ____ from Ho Chi Minh City than Bien Hoa is.

A. farer
B. more far
C. farther
D. much far

8. Shakira is a _____ singer______ Milo.

A. better- to
B. gooder- than
C. much- good
D. better- than

9. I will be there ______ I can.

A. sooner as
B. as soon as
C. soonest as
D. soonest as

10. The _________, the_________.

A. soon- best
B. sooner- good
C. sooner- better
D. soonest- better

Task 2. Choose the word or phrase among A, B, C or D that best fits the blank space in the following passage.

Environmental pollution is a term that (1) ________ to all the ways by which man pollutes his surroundings. Man dirties the air with gases and smoke, poisons the water with chemicals and other substances, and damages the soil with (2) ________ many fertilizers and pesticides. Man also pollutes his surroundings in various other ways. (3) ________, people ruin natural beauty by disposing garbage and waste products on the land and in the water. They operate machines and motor vehicles that fill the air with (4) ________ noise. Badly polluted air can cause illness, and even death. Polluted water kills fish and other coastal life. Pollution of soil reduces the amount of land that is (5) ________ for growing food.

1. A. refers      B. attend       C. directs      D. aims

2. A. extreme     B. too         C. such       D. all

3. A. Besides     B. As instance     C. Therefore     D. For example

4. A. embarrassing   B. disturbing      C. confusing     D. dismissing

5. A. able        B. capable       C. probable      D. available

III. READING

Task 1. Read the passage and write the answer True or False.

The world’s forests are being consumed rapidly. Trees are cut down for paper and wood products, for cooking fuel, to clear land for development, and to expand farming areas. The land left behind is stripped not only of its trees, but the plants, animals, and insects that lived in that ecosystem as well. With no plant roots to hold it in place, valuable soil washes away with every rainfall and ends up in the rivers and streams upon which people depend for their water supply. In extreme cases, hundreds or thousands of people lose their homes or perish in landslides when deforested slopes become unstable.

Forests also play an important part in regulating global climate. Trees remove carbon dioxide, a major greenhouse gas, from the atmosphere, while cycling oxygen back into it. When trees are cut down, however, the CO₂ is released again. It is estimated that up to 25% of the total amount of CO₂ going into the atmosphere every year is released from trees being cut and burned. It’s clear that protecting the world’s forests is an important part of solving the global climate change problem.

1. To expand farming areas is one of the reasons for cutting down trees.

2. Soil washes away with rainfall due to no plant roots to hold it in place.

3. Forests make unnecessary contribution to regulating global climate.

4. Trees release carbon dioxide, a major greenhouse gas, to the atmosphere.

5. Cutting and burning trees produce O2 going into the atmosphere annually.

Task 2. Read the text and complete the summary with ONE or TWO WORDS ONLY.

Many people assume that video games have a negative effect on young people. A lot of time in front of a screen is bad for the mind and the body, and combat games cause concern because they contain violence. Newspapers often express the same opinion. However, according to a report in American Psychologist, playing video games can be good for children’s education, health and social skills. Video games can actually improve certain mental skills. Combat games, for example, teach players to think in three dimensions. This helps children with science, technology, engineering and maths. Other types of video game can have other positive effects. In 2013, research showed that children who play role-playing games get better grades at school than those who don’t play them. Other research showed that playing any video game improves children’s creativity. Quick and simple games like Angry Birds can improve players’ mood and prevent them from feeling anxious. The report also says that video games teach children how to react well to failure because players continually fail and try again. This makes them emotionally strong in real life. Video games can improve social skills too, the report says. More than 70% of gamers play with a friend, and many take part in online games, like Farmville, with millions of other people. The players learn how to lead a group, work together and make decisions. Overall, the report accepts that some video games can have negative effects, but reminds us that they can have benefits too.
Summary

Video games are (1)_________ to have a negative effect on young people because they are time-consuming and violent. However, a (2)__________ shows that video games can actually improve certain mental skills. Video games helps children with science, technology, engineering and maths. Different types of video game can result in various positive effects. In (3)___________, research showed that playing video games can help children improve schoolwork, (4)__________________, mood, social skills and leadership. Overall, the report accepts that some video games can have negative effects, but reminds us that they can have (5)___________ too.

IV. WRITING

Task 1. Write complete sentences using the clues given.

1. There/ a few/ flower/ my garden.

2. Some/ student/ play football/ the park/ the weekend.

3. Peter/ must/ home/ 11 o’clock.

4. There/ lot/ traffic/ yesterday.

5. Students / not have to /wear uniform/ America.

Task 2. Write your article (120– 150 words). Read the statement and decide if you agree or disagree.

“ It is often said that governments spend too much money on projects to protect wildlife, while there are other problems that are more important.”

2.2 Đáp án đề thi tiếng Anh 10 học kì 1

I. LISTENING

Task 1.

1. B

2. A

3. D

Task 2.

1. T	2. T	3. F	4. F
5. T	6. F	7. T

II. USE OF ENGLISH

Task 1.

1. B	2. B	3. A	4. C	5. A
6. A	7. C	8. D	9. B	10. C

Task 2.

1. A

2. B

3. D

4. B

5. D

III. READING

Task 1.

1. T

2. T

3. F

4. F

5. F

Task 2.

1. believed/ thought/ assumed

2. report/ research

3. 2013

4. creativity

5. benefits

IV. WRITING

Task 1.

1. There are a few flowers in my garden.

2. Some students play football in the park on the weekend.

3. Peter must be home at/ by 11 o’clock.

4. There was a lot of traffic yesterday.

5. Students don’t have to wear uniform in America.

…………….

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