Bộ đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh lớp 6 năm 2024 – 2025 (Có file nghe) 5 Đề thi kì 1 môn Anh 6 KNTT, i-Learn Smart World, Right on, English Discovery

TOP 5 Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 năm 2024 – 2025 sách Kết nối tri thức, i-Learn Smart World, Right on, English Discovery, có đáp án, hướng dẫn chấm,bảng ma trận và file nghe kèm theo, giúp thầy cô tham khảo để xây dựng đề thi cuối học kì 1 năm 2024 – 2025 cho học sinh của mình.

Với 5 Đề thi học kì 1 Tiếng Anh 6 có file nghe, còn giúp các em luyện giải đề và so sánh đối chiếu với kết quả mình đã làm. Ngoài ra, có thể tham khảo thêm đề thi học kì 1 môn Ngữ văn, Toán. Mời thầy cô và các em cùng theo dõi bài viết dưới đây của Thptlequydontranyenyenbai.edu.vn:

1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách i-Learn Smart World

1.1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

UBND HUYỆN_________ PHÒNG GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA HỌC KỲ I Năm học 2024 – 2025 MÔN TIẾNG ANH –LỚP 6 Thời gian làm bài: 60 phút

TA6 SMART WORLD – SEMESTER 1 TEST
Time allotted: 60 minutes

I. Listening:

You will hear a teacher talking to her new class. Listen and complete each question with ONE word and/or a number. (1 point)

Name of teacher: Susan Brown

Lessons start at: (1)………………………………………………………………………………………

In the morning, everybody studies (2) English, science and………………………………..

Food for lunch (3) sandwich, ……………………………….. and orange juice

On Sunday ………………………………..(4) show

II. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)

5. A. noodles B. dessert C. order D. sweater

6. A. performance B. festival C. library D. customer

III. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)

7. We ________ the sausages on the barbecue. They taste wonderful.

A. fry
B. serve
C. pour
D. grill

8. Would you like to see the dessert ________?

A. menu
B. order
C. tip
D. service

9. There’s a ________ on TV tonight. You can see many dancers in their traditional clothes.

A. fashion show
B. tug of war
C. dance performance
D. fireworks

10. Do you have this skirt ________ a medium size?

A. with
B. on
C. for
D. in

11. I like ________ shoes by the window. Do you have ________ in black?

A. that/ it
B. this/ them
C. those/ them
D. these/ it

12. Would you like ________ bread and cheese for lunch?

A. a
B. some
C. any
D. the

13. Waiter: “What would you like for dessert?”

Customer: “________”

A. I’d like an omelet.
B. A cupcake, please.
C. I don’t like coffee.
D. I prefer tea.

14. Customer: “Do you have this dress in white?”

Sales assistant: “________”

A. Yes, I am.
B. Yes, it is.
C. Yes, here you are.
D. Yes, it’s OK.

15. What does the sign mean?

A. There is a lot of food here.
B. Please order your food here.
C. You can find your food here.
D. Please eat and drink here.

16. What does the sign mean?

A. Please be quiet here.
B. Please don’t play here.
C. There aren’t any people here.
D. You can’t be here.

IV. Reading comprehension.

Read the following passage and complete the tasks. (1.5 points)

My name is Quanzhou and I’m from China. My favorite time of the year is Chinese New Year. People decorate houses and streets with lanterns and flowers many days before New Year festival. Everything is red and gold, because they’re the lucky colors. People give children lucky money in red envelops, and they also give friends mandarin oranges for good luck. The New Year’s Eve dinner is called Reunion Dinner. People in the family sit together, talk and enjoy the traditional food. One special dish is Nian Gao. People make Nian Gao with sugar and rice. We also eat fish, chicken and dumplings. After dinner we watch the New Year music performance on TV. At midnight, we can see fireworks in the sky. The colors are amazing. There are parades and lion dances in the streets, too.

* Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1 point)

True or False
17. People decorate their houses during New Year festivals. 18. Red and gold are lucky colors in China. 19. Children receive lucky money in red envelops. 20. People eat fish, chicken and mandarin oranges for Reunion Dinner.	…………………… …………………… …………………… ……………………

* Choose the word or phrase that best answers each question. (0.5 points)

21. What do people give to friends for good luck?

A. Nian Gao
B. mandarin oranges
C. money
D. flowers

22. What do people make Nian Gao with?

A. fish and chicken
B. rice and dumplings
C. sugar and rice
D. fish and rice

V. Cloze test

Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

My best friend is Joe. He’s nine years old like me. Joe lives in a small house with his parents. Joe’s tall and quite fat. He (23) __________ big brown eyes and short hair. Joe and I spend a lot of time together. We both like sports. We often (24) __________ martial arts after school. We are in the school karate club. Joe is a great friend. He’s very (25) __________. He helps me when I can’t do my homework. He’s also good at magic. He’s going to sign up for the (26) __________ next month. Next Saturday is his birthday. We (27) __________ a party with chicken pasta and cola. I’ll buy a T-shirt for him. His favorite color is blue, so I’m going to look for a beautiful one (28) __________ blue.

23. A. wears B. has C. is D. looks

24. A. do B. play C. go D. join

25. A. funny B. friendly C. selfish D. helpful

26. A. tug of war B. puppet C. talent show D. fashion show

27. A. are having B. has C. have D. having

28. A. on B. for C. with D. in

VI. Verb forms and verb tenses

Complete the sentences with the correct form of the verbs in brackets. (1 point)

29. My sister and I _________ (go) shopping tomorrow. Do you want to join us?

30. Harry _________ (practice) the piano on Fridays.

31. What time _______ the festival _________ (open)?

32. I like _________ (read) at home, in my bedroom.

VII. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)

33. often/ with/ on/ play/ I/ weekends/ hopscotch/ my/ the/ friends/./

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

34. children/ on/ costumes/ trick-or-treating/ Halloween/ wear/ go/ and/./

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

VIII. Make questions for the underlined part. (0.75 points)

35. Sam rarely goes running.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

36. The new teacher is very kind and funny.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

37. This jacket is twenty dollars.

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

IX. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.75 points)

38. I want to have a cheeseburger.

→ I would ……………………………………………………..…………………………………

39. Why don’t we go to the movie theater?

→ Let’s ….……………………………………..………………………………

40. Simon likes playing soccer in his free time.

→ Simon’s hobby……………………..……………………………………..………………………

EXTRA QUESTIONS

Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (0.5 points)

1. Andy is very lazy. He never does ________ housework.

A. some
B. a
C. any
D. lot

2. First, you will ________ the steak and chips in hot oil.

A. make
B. grill
C. taste
D. fry

Cloze test:

Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

My name is Paulo and I live in Rio de Janeiro. My father is an engineer and my mum (1) __________ in a local hospital. I have a brother. We live in an apartment in the city. There are two bedrooms. One bedroom is for my parents, so I share the other with my brother. We also have a kitchen, a living room and a bathroom. (2) __________ a garage, so my father parks his car in front of the house. When I want to be on my own, I go out. We live (3) __________ the park. I often meet my friends there and we (4) __________ hide and seek. Rio is (5) __________ exciting city. Every year there’s Carnival festival. It’s a huge street party with parades, music and dancing performances. People wear masks and colorful (6) __________. They play drums and dance samba until 4a.m.

1. A. is work B. works C. work D. working

2. A. There is B. It is C. There isn’t D. It doesn’t have

3. A. opposite B. in front C. between D. next

4. A. go B. do C. play D. have

5. A. a B. some C. any D. an

6. A. clothe B. costumes C. gifts D. sizes

Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.25 points)

1. clubs/ usually/ you/ after/ do/ go/ school/ What/ to/?/

……………………………………..……………………………………..………………………

Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.25 points)

1. How much are these jeans?

→ What is ……………………………..……………………………………..………………………

1.2. Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

(1) 9 (9 a.m./ 9 o’ clock)

(2) math

(3) soup

(4) puppet

II. Pronunciation: Find the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress. (0.5 points)

5. B; 6: A

III. Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (2.5 points)

7. D; 8: A; 9: C; 10: D; 11: C; 12: B; 13; A; 14: C; 15: B; 16: A;

IV. Reading comprehension.

* Decide whether the statements that follow are True or False (1 point)

17. False

18. True

19. True

20. False

* Choose the word or phrase that best answers each question. (0.5 points)

21. B; 22: C

V. Cloze test

23: B; 24: A; 25: D; 26: C; 27: A; 28: D

VI. Verb forms and verb tenses

29. are going

30. practices

31. does; open

32. reading

VII. Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.5 points)

33. I often play hopscotch with my friends on the weekends.

34. Children wear costumes and go trick-or-treating on Halloween./ On Halloween, children wear costumes and go trick-or-treating.

VIII. Make questions for the underlined part. (0.75 points)

35. How often does Sam go running?

36. What is the new teacher like?

37. How much is this jacket? / How much does this jacket cost?

IX. Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.75 points)

38. I would like to have a cheeseburger.

39. Let’s go to the movie theater.

40. Simon’s hobby is playing soccer (in his free time).

EXTRA QUESTIONS

Choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank in each sentence. (0.5 points)

1: C; 2: D

Read the passage, choose the word/ phrase (A, B, C or D) that best suits the blank. (1.5 points)

1: B; 2: C; 3: A; 4: C; 5: D; 6: B

Rearrange the groups of words in a correct order to make complete sentences. (0.25 points)

→ What clubs do you usually go to after school?

Rewrite the following sentences without changing the meaning. (0.25 points)

→ What is the price of these jeans?

Tapescripts:

Good morning and welcome to our first day at Lincoln School. My name’s Susan Brown and I’m your teacher for this year. I’d like you to listen carefully to this important information. You all must be here in the classroom at 8:45 in the morning. I’ll check your names and the first lesson begins at 9 o’ clock. In the morning, you are all together in this classroom for English, Science and Math. Lunch break is at 12 o’ clock. Students can have lunch in the canteen. You can have sandwiches, soup and orange juice. After lunch, please get back to your classroom to study art and music. If you love performing, you can join the drama club on Saturdays. To join the club, sign up on the noticeboard. And finally, there’s a puppet show this Sunday. Don’t forget to come. I hope you’ll enjoy it. I think that’s all for now. Do you have any questions?

1.3. Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC								Tổng số câu
Kỹ năng	Dạng bài	NHẬN BIẾT		THÔNG HIỂU		VẬN DỤNG			VẬN DỤNG CAO
Trắc nghiệm	Tự luận	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
Listening (1pt)	Q2,3	Q1,4	4
Pronunciation (0.5pts)	Stress	Q5,6	2
Writing (Use of English) (2pts)	Vocabulary Preposition Grammar	Q10	Q11,12	Q7,9	Q8	6
	Signs	Q15,16	2
Speaking (0.5pts)	Q13,14	2
Reading (3pts)	Reading comprehension	Q19	Q21,22	Q18	Q20	Q17	6
	Guided cloze	Q27,28	Q23,24	Q26	Q25	6
Writing (3pts)	Verb form/ verb tense (1pt)	Q32	Q30	Q29, 31	4
	Rearrange the words (0.5pt)	Q33	Q34	2
	Make questions (0.75pt)	Q35,36	Q37	3
	Sentence transformation (0.75pt)	Q38,39	Q40	3
Tổng (10pts)	6	8	8	5	3	6	2	2
14 câu 35%		13 câu 32.5%		9 câu 22.5%		4 câu 10%		40 câu

Trắc nghiệm: 19 câu (47.5%)

Tự luận: 21 câu (52.5%)

All sentences: 0.25đ/ câu

10 EXTRA SENTENCES:

CÂU HỎI THEO MỨC ĐỘ NHẬN THỨC								Tổng số câu
Kỹ năng	Dạng bài	NHẬN BIẾT		THÔNG HIỂU		VẬN DỤNG			VẬN DỤNG CAO
Trắc nghiệm	Tự luận	TN	TL	TN	TL	TN	TL
Use of English	Q1,2	1
Reading	Cloze test	Q1,5	Q3,4,6	Q2	6
Writing	Rearrange the sentences	Q1	2
	Make question	Q1

2. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 sách Kết nối tri thức – Đề 2

2.1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 – Global Success

ĐỀ KIỂM TRA ĐÁNH GIÁ CUỐI KỲ 1
NĂM HỌC …………..
MÔN TIẾNG ANH – LỚP 6
(Làm bài trong 90 phút)

PART A: LISTENING (2.0 pts)

Hướng dẫn phần thi nghe hiểu:

Nội dung nghe gồm 2 phần, mỗi phần thí sinh được nghe 2 lần, đĩa CD tự chạy 2 lần.

Hướng dẫn làm bài chi tiết cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

I. Listen to Tracy talking about her house and tick (✓) T (True) or F (False). (1p)

Statements	T	F
1. Tracy has two brothers.
2.Tracy’s house is opposite a department store.
3. The kitchen is small with nice bowls and chopsticks.
4. The cupboard is near some flowers.
5. She doesn’t love her house.

1. T 2. T 3. F 4. T 5.

II. Listen to Tracy talking about her house. Circle the best choice (A, B or C). You will listen TWICE.

1.How many people are there in Tracy’s family?

A. Three.
B. Four.
C. Five.

2. When does Tracy’s family go to the department store?

A. On Saturdays and Sundays.
B. OnMondays.
C. OnThursdays.

3. How many rooms does her house have?

A. It has seven rooms.
B. It has five rooms.
C. It has eight rooms.

4. What is in Tracy’s room?

A. A TV.
B. Many books.
C. A wardrobe.

5. Why does she love her house?

A. Because it is dirty.
B. Because it is nice and tidy.
C. Because it is large and untidy.

Tapescripts:

Tracy: Hi, I’m Tracy. There are five people in my family: my dad, my mom, my two brothers and me. Our house is opposite a department store. We often go there at weekends to buy things for homes. Now, about the house. It has three bedrooms, two bathrooms, a living room and a kitchen. There isn’t a TV in my bedroom, but there are a lot of books. The kitchen is big and it has beautiful bowls and chopsticks. My mom often puts some flowers near the cupboard. I love my house because it is nice and tidy.

PART B: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (2.0 pts)

I. Choose the correct answers. (1.6 pts)

1. Diana is in the art club. She likes painting pictures, and everyone enjoys them. She is very ___________ .

A. shy
B. kind
C. funny
D. creative

2. Do you and Vui play volleyball ? Yes, ………………

A. we do
B. they do
C. you do
D. I do

3. There are many chairs in the kitchen, __________ there is only one in my bedroom.

A. so
B. because
C. but
D. in

4. My father works _________ a factory.

A. in
B. with
C. on
D. by

5. My new house is ________ than the old house.

A. more convenient
B. convenient
C. the convenient
D. most convenient

6. My mother is a good cook. She often ________ special food at Tet.

A. buys
B. cooks
C. takes
D. brings

7. Tet is a time for family _________.

A. working
B. cooking
C. playing
D. gathering

8. I’d like ______________oranges.

A. an
B. any
C. some
D. a

9. You ________ speak during the exam. It’s forbidden.

A. should
B. shouldn’t
C. must
D. mustn’t

II. Find and correct the mistakes in these sentences.(0.4 pts)

10. She is wantingto buya new computer.
A B C D

=> A (is wanting => wants)

11. Thereare six room in my house.
A B C C

=> C-> rooms

III. Read the following passage and mark letter A, B, C or D to indicate the correct word that best completes each blank.

Ba’s bedroom is big but (1) …………….. . There (2)……………clothes on the floor. There is a big desk near the window, and there are dirty bowls and chopsticks on it. He often puts his schoolbag under the desk . His bed is (3) ………….. to the desk, and it is also untidy. There is a cap, some CDs and …………………….(4)books on the bed. Ba’s mum is(5) …………….. with this, and now Ba is tidying up his room.

1. A. small B. tidy C. messy D. clean

2. A. are B. be C. were D. Am

3. A. near B. behind C. between D. Next

4. A. a B. some C. little D. Much

5. A. happy B .unhappily C. unhappy D. happier

IV. Read the following passage then answer questions below

This is Nga’s grandma. She used to live on a farm when she was a young girl. Life was hard then so she didn’t go to school because she had to stay home and help her mom. She used to look after her younger brothers and sisters.

Nga’s great- grandma used to cook the meals, clean the house and wash the clothes. That was a hard work and there wasn’t any electricity then so she had to do everything without the help of modern equipment.

In the evening, Nga’s great- grandmother and great-grandfather used to stay home. She lit the lamp and he used to tell Nga’s grandma stories after dinner. And the best oneNga’s grandma still remembered was The Lost Shoe.

1. Where did Nga’s grandma use to live when she was a young girl? ~ _____________.

A. On a farm
B. In a city
C. In a school
D. In a town

2.Was the life difficult then? ~ ________________.

A. No, it was
B. Yes, it was
C. No, life wasn’t
D. Yes, life was

3.What did Nga’s grandma have to do when she was young? ~____________________.

A. She used to live on a farm
B. She had to stay home and give her mom a hand.
C. She had to take care of her younger brothers and sisters
D. Both B and C are correct

4. Nga’s great- grandma used to do everything without the help of modern equipment because there was no _____________ then.

A. traditional stories
B. folktales
C. electricity
D. clothes

5.What does the word “one” in line 8 mean?

A. A story
B. A lamp
C. A shoe
D. electricity

PART D: WRITING (2.0 pts)

I. Rearrange the words / phrases to make correct sentences. (0,4 pts)

1. There / many things / my / I / about / neighbourhood / like / are / .

____________________________________________________________

=>- There are many things I like about my neighbourhood.

2. should/not/You/stay up late /.

____________________________________________________________

=> You should not stay up late.

II. Rewrite the sentences using the words in brackets. Do not change the meaning of the sentences and do not change the form of the words. (0,6pts)

1. A city is noisier than a village. (PEACEFUL)

=> ____________________________________________________________

=> A village is more peaceful than a city.

2. We have a sink, a fridge, a cooker and a cupboard in our kitchen.(THERE)

____________________________________________________________

=>There is a sink, a fridge, a cooker and a cupboard in our kitchen

3. How many times a week do you go to your painting club?(HOW OFTEN)

____________________________________________________________

=> How often do you go to your painting club?

III. Write a paragraph about your neighbourhood (about 60 words), using the cues below:(1,0pts)?

– Where is your neighbourhood? (in the city, near a city, in the country, in the mountains, etc.)

– What can you see in your neighbourhood? (streets, houses, trees, hills, shopping centres, schools, cinemas, etc.)

– What are the streets / the houses / the shops, etc. in your neighbourhood like?

– Do you like living in your neighbourhood? Why / Why not?

Writing criterias:

– good organization(topic sentense, suporting sentences, concluding sentence): 0, 2 pt

– ideas and linking words: 0, 25pt

– lexical resource: 0, 25pt

– grammatical range: 0, 25pt

PART E: SPEAKING (2.0 pts)

I. Introduce yourself (0.4 pts) 🙁 Phần bắt buộc)

– Name – Age – Class/ School – Address – Hobbies

II. Topic: (1.2 pts) (Học sinh bốc thăm topic và trả lời câu hỏi )

1. Describing your school

Talk about your school. That may include:

– What’s your school’s name/ address?

– How is it? (new/old; large/ small; beautiful; …)

– How many teachers/ students/ classrooms/ floors are there?

– How are the teachers/ students? (friendly; helpful;…)

– What do you like the best about your school?

2. Talk about your house

Describe your house. That may include:

– Do you live in a house or an apartment?

– How many rooms are there in your house?

– How was the furniture arranged?

– Which is your favourite room in your home? Why?

– What do you think about your house? Why?

3. Talk about your best friend

Describe your best friend. That may include:

– Introduce your friend

– What is your friend look like?

– What is her/ his character?

– What are her/ his hobbies?

– Why do you like your friend?

4.Talk about my neighborhood.

That may include:

– Where is your neighbourhood? (in the city, near a city, in the country, in the mountain, etc.)

– What can you see in your neighbourhood? (streets, houses, trees, hills, shopping centres, schools, a cinema, etc.)

– What do the streets/ the houses/ the shops, etc. in your neighbourhood look like?

– Do you like living in your neighbourhood? Why/ Why not?

5. Talk about the place you want to visit

That may include:

– where is it?

– what are the main attractions?

– what will you do when you visit this place?

– why do you want to visit this place?

6. Talk about Tet activities and traditions

That may include:

– when does it take place?

– why does it take place?

– what do the people do during this festival?

– do you like Tet holiday? Why?

III. Questions and answers (0.4 pts)

Possible questions

Topic 1:

– Which type of school would you like to go to? Boarding school or public school? Why?

Topic 2:

– Do you like to live in a house or a flat? Why?

Topic 3:

– In your opinion, how to be a good friend?

Topic 4:

– What do you like and dislike in your neighborhood?

Topic 5:

– What do you need to bring when you visit a place?

Topic 6:

– What things we should/shouldn’t do at Tet?

2.2. Ma trận đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

TT	Kĩ năng	Mức độ nhận thức								Tổng
		Nhận biết		Thông hiểu		Vận dụng		Vận dụng cao
		Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)	Tỉ lệ (%)	Thời gian (phút)
1	Nghe	8= 4 câu	4	8= 4 câu	8	4= 2 câu	4	20	16
2	Ngôn ngữ	10= 5 câu	8	10= 5 câu	8	20	15
3	Đọc	8= 4 câu	4	6= 3 câu	6	6= 3 câu	9	20	19
4	Viết	4= 2 câu	6	6= 3 câu	10	10	12	20	28
5	Nói	4	3	12	4	4	5	20	12
Tổng		26	16	32	31	28	27	14	17	100	90
Tỉ lệ (% )		26		32		28		14		100
Tỉ lệ chung (%)		58				42				100

2.3. Bản đặc tả đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

TT

Kĩ năng

Đơn vị kiến thức/kỹ năng

Mức độ kiến thức, kĩ năng cần kiểm tra, đánh giá

Số câu hỏi theo mức độ nhận thức

Tổng Số CH

Nhận biết

Thông hiểu

Vận dụng

Vận dụng cao

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

TN

TL

I.

LISTENING

1. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại/ độc thoại trong 2-3 phút (khoảng 80 – 100 từ) để trả lời các dạng câu hỏi có liên quan đến các chủ đề đã học trong học kỳ 1: Listen and write.

Nhận biết: – Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết.

2

2

Thông hiểu: – Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

2

2

Vận dụng: – Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. – Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

2. Nghe một đoạn hội thoại/ độc thoại khoảng 2-3 phút (khoảng 80 – 100 từ) liên quan đến các chủ đề đã học trong học kỳ 1. – Listen and tick

Nhận biết: – Nghe lấy thông tin chi tiết.

1

1

Thông hiểu: – Hiểu nội dung chính của đoạn độc thoại/ hội thoại để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

2

2

Vận dụng: – Nắm được ý chính của bài nghe để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp. – Tổng hợp thông tin từ nhiều chi tiết, loại trừ các chi tiết sai để tìm câu trả lời đúng.

3

3

II.

LANGUAGE

1. Vocabulary Từ vựng đã học theo chủ điểm.

Nhận biết: – Nhận ra, nhớ lại, liệt kê được các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học.

2

2

Thông hiểu: – Hiểu và phân biệt được các từ vựng theo chủ đề đã học. – Nắm được các mối liên kết và kết hợp của từ trong bối cảnh và ngữ cảnh tương ứng.

1

1

Vận dụng: – Hiểu và vận dụng được từ vựng đã học trong văn cảnh (danh từ, động từ, tính từ và trạng từ…)

2. Grammar Các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học.

Nhận biết: – Nhận ra được các kiến thức ngữ pháp đã học.

3

3

Thông hiểu: – Hiểu và phân biệt các chủ điểm ngữ pháp đã học.

2

2

Vận dụng: – Hiểu và vận dụng các kiến thức ngữ pháp đã học vào bài nghe/ nói/ đọc/ viết.

3. Error identification Xác định lỗi sai

Thông hiểu: – Nhận diện lỗi về ngữ pháp và từ loại trong câu và sửa chúng.

2

2

III.

READING

1. Cloze test Hiểu được bài đọc có độ dài khoảng 80-100 từ về các chủ điểm đã học. (Từ vựng, lượng từ, liên từ, giới từ… )

Nhận biết: – Nhận ra được các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản.

2

2

Thông hiểu: – Phân biệt được các đặc trưng, đặc điểm các thành tố ngôn ngữ và liên kết về mặt văn bản.

2

2

Vận dụng: – Sử dụng các kiến thức ngôn ngữ và kỹ năng trong các tình huống mới.

1

1

2. Reading comprehension Hiểu được nội dung chính và nội dung chi tiết đoạn văn bản có độ dài khoảng 100-120 từ, xoay quanh các chủ điểm có trong chương trình ( Tiêu đề, từ quy chiếu, tù đồng nghĩa/ trái nghĩa, thông tin chi tiết có trong bài)

Nhận biết: – Thông tin chi tiết

2

2

Thông hiểu: – Hiểu ý chính của bài đọc và chọn câu trả lời phù hợp. – Hiểu được nghĩa tham chiếu. – Loại trừ các chi tiết để đưa ra câu trả lời phù hợp

1

1

Vận dụng: – Đoán nghĩa của từ trong văn cảnh. – Hiều, phân tích, tổng hợp ý chính của bài để chọn câu trả lời phù hợp.

2

2

IV.

WRITING

1. Sentence transformation Viết lại câu dùng từ gợi ý hoặc từ cho trước

Thông hiểu: – Sử dụng các từ đã để sắp xếp thành câu hoàn chỉnh.

2

2

Vận dụng: – Hiểu câu gốc và sử dụng các từ gợi ý để viết lại câu sao cho nghĩa không thay đổi.

3

3

2. Write an email / a paragraph Viết thư điện tử/ Viết đoạn văn

Vận dụng cao: – Viết (có hướng dẫn) một đoạn văn ngắn khoảng 100 –120 về một chủ đề đã học, hoặc một vấn đề liên quan đến các chủ đề đã học trong chương trình hoặc viết thư cá nhân liên quan các vấn đề thuộc lĩnh vực quan tâm.

1 bài

V.

SPEAKING

(Phần SPEAKING tổ chức thi buổi riêng) + Nội dung: – Hỏi – đáp và trình bày về các nội dung liên quan đến các chủ điểm có trong chương trình. – Sử dụng được một số chức năng giao tiếp cơ bản như hướng dẫn, bày tỏ ý kiến, hỏi đường, hỏi thông tin và cung cấp thông tin, … + Kỹ năng: – Kỹ năng trình bày một vấn đề; sử dụng ngôn ngữ cơ thể và các biểu đạt trên khuôn mặt phù hợp; kỹ năng nói trước đám đông… + Ngôn ngữ và cấu trúc: – Ưu tiên sử dụng những cấu trúc đã học trong chương trình. (Các chủ đề nói trong phần ghi chú)

1. Introduction

Thông hiểu: – Giới thiệu các thông tin về bản thân/ sở thích/ về thầy cô, mái trường/ môn học yêu thích.

5%

2. Topic speaking

Vận dụng: – Sử dụng từ vựng và cấu trúc linh hoạt, diễn tả được nội dung cần nói theo những cách khác nhau. Phát âm tương đối chuẩn.

1bai

1 bài* 10%

3. Q&A

Vận dụng cao: – Hiểu và trả lời được câu hỏi của giám khảo và trả lời một cách linh hoạt. Sử dụng ngôn ngữ một cách tự nhiên và thuần thục.

1bài

1 bài* 5 %

Tổng

11

2

8

4

6

4

2bài

22

15 + 1 bài

3. Đề thi cuối kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 Right on

3.1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

I. Listen to the passage and fill one word in each blank.

My name is Sarah. I have lived in Hanoi for (1) ___ years. It is very crowded with a lot of vehicles (2) ___ here and there every day. My house is small but modern with useful appliances such as a washing machine, a (3) ___, a smart TV, two laptops. My favourite appliance is the hi-tech robot which can help me do the (4) ___. I named the robot Tom. Tom does several chores for me like cleaning my room, making coffee and playing the music I like. I feel very (5) ___ living in my house.

II. Choose the word which is pronounced differently from the others.

6.

A. happen
B. family
C. rapid
D. father

7.

A. character
B. argue
C. party
D. carbon

8.

A. soul
B. about
C. account
D. sound

9.

A. weather
B. than
C. throat
D. that

10.

A. apples
B. tables
C. desks
D. beds

III. Choose the best answer.

11. Lisa always __________ out with her friends on Sundays.

A. brushes
B. plays
C. hangs
D. chats

12. Sara ____________ her homework before dinner.

A. does
B. plays
C. makes
D. walks

13. My sisters ____________ to the cinema every weekend.

A. watch
B. hang
C. play
D. go

14. I usually bake this cake for ____________.

A. 15 minutes
B. 20 grammes
C. 3 teaspoons
D. 5 millilitres

15. Ian plays video games ____________ the evenings.

A. at
B. in
C. on
D. about

IV. Choose the correct answers.

16. Boys _________ soccer after school, but girls don’t.

A. often play
B. play often
C. often playing
D. are often playing

17. The bookstore is _____ of the bakery.

A. the left
B. next
C. near
D. in front

18. Today is _____ yesterday. You should wear warm clothes.

A. colder
B. colder than
C. coldest
D. the most coldest

19. I live in a __ neighborhood. There are a lot of stores near my house.

A. quite
B. quiet
C. calm
D. noisy

20. Mai’s apartment is _________ than Nam’s.

A. expensive
B. expensiver
C. more expensive
D. most expensive

21. There are __________ beautiful cottages in the countryside.

A. some
B. any
C. a
D. an

22. My mother __________ chopping onions.

A. don’t like
B. doesn’t like
C. not like
D. like

23. I usually eat __________ food than you do.

A. more
B. most
C. a lot of
D. many

24. My brother and I ____________ breakfast at school.

A. has
B. not have
C. have
D. having

V. a. Complete the following passage with the given words:

walk – old – play video games – get up – go home – have lunch

Hi, I’m Nam. I am a teacher and I’m 26 years (25) ______. I’m teaching in a school in London. Every morning I (26) ______ at about 5 o’clock, have breakfast and drink a cup of coffee. Then I leave for work. The school is far from my home, so I can’t (27) ______ there. I must go by bus. I (28) ______ at a canteen nearby. In the afternoon, I work until 5 or 5:30 and then (29) ______. I don’t work on Saturdays or Sundays. Today is Sunday and I (30) ______ with my friends. We have great time together.

b. Read the text again and answer the questions

31. What does Nam do?

32. What time does he get up?

33. Where does he have lunch?

34. How does he go to work?

35. What does he do on Sundays with his friends?

VI. Match the phrases in the left with the phrases in the right.

36. How is your first week at school? 37. Where is the cat? 38. Would you like some fruit juice? 39. What shall we do this afternoon? 40. Can you tell me the way to the beach?

a. Yes, I’d love to. b. Oh, wonderful. c. It’s under the table. d. Yes, First go straight. Then turn right. e. Let’s go out and have an ice-cream.

VII. Write an email (30-40 words) to your e-friend to describe your eating habits.

Hi Helen,

How are you? I’m writing to share with you my eating habits. For breakfast, I __________. For lunch, I __________. Sometimes, I drink __________. My favourite food is ____________. I like to be healthy so I eat a lot of ____________. I also drink ____________.

What about you?

Write back

Emily

3.2. Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 Right on

1. two	2.travelling	3.fridge	4. housework	5. comfortable
6. D	7. A	8. A	9. C	10. C
11. C	12. C	13. D	14. A	15. B
16. A	17. D	18. B	19. D	20. C
21. A	22. B	23. A	24. C	25. old
26. get up	27. walk	28. have lunch	29. go home	30. play video games
36. b	37. c	38. a	30. e	40. d

31. Nam is a teacher.

32. He gets up at about 5 o’ clock.

33. He has lunch at a canteen nearby.

34. He goes to work by bus.

35. He plays video games.

VII.

Hi Helen,

How are you? I’m writing to share with you my eating habits. For breakfast, I usually have a glass of milk and a bowl of cereal. For lunch, I bring my packed lunch. There are some sandwiches and apples. Sometimes, I drink some orange juice. My favourite food is fish. I like to be healthy so I eat a lot of vegetables and fruit. I also drink a lot of water, from six to eight glasses every day.

What about you?

Write back

Emily

4. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6 English Discovery

4.1. Đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

I. PRONUNCIATION

Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently.

1.

A. starts
B. learns
C. laughs
D. makes

2.

A. different
B. slim
C. quiet
D. swim

3.

A. astronaut
B. happy
C. classmate
D. actor

Choose the word that has a different stressed syllable from the rest.

4.

A. daughter
B. foreign
C. breakfast
D. guitar

5.

A. harmonica
B. calculator
C. participate
D. activity

II. VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR

Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences.

6. My cousin doesn’t talk much. He is very __________, but I still like him a lot.

A. happy
B. funny
C. quiet
D. brave

7. How __________ apples are there? I will buy a kilo.

A. much
B. many
C. any
D. a lot of

8. I often feel __________ after school. I just want to go home and relax.

A. excited
B. thirsty
C. relaxed
D. tired

9. I usually spend about three hours__________ homework everyday.

A. doing
B. do
C. does
D. to do

10. Do you like __________? It’s my favourite type of chocolate cake.

A. kebab
B. yoghurt
C. brownie
D. fish fingers

11. Emma exercises everyday. She has a __________ and beautiful body.

A. long
B. fat
C. fit
D. old

12. I had two accidents today! This is __________ day in my life!

A. the worst
B. best
C. worse
D. the best

13. Look! Mia is walking her dogs to the park. How many dogs __________?

A. she got
B. has she got
C. got she
D. she has got

14. A: Do you like rock music? B: __________. I like pop and classical.

A. Yes, I do.
B. Sorry, yes.
C. No, thanks.
D. No, I don’t.

15. A: Dad, can I borrow your car today? B: _________ I’m using it today.

A. Sure.
B. Sorry, you can’t.
C. No, I can’t.
D. Yes, no problem.

Complete the text using the Present Simple or the Present Continuous.

Today is Luke’s first day at secondary school. He usually (16)__________ (go) to school early, but today he woke up late. The bell is ringing and all the students (17)__________ (run) into class. His teacher is Mrs. Lily. She (18)__________ (teach)three subjects: Maths, English and History. At the moment, she (19)__________ (teach) History. Luke is good at Maths, but he (20)__________ (not like) History. He is scared because he can’t answer Mrs. Lily’s question.

Write the correct forms of the words in brackets.

21. The __________ of this popular song is a young man. He is only 26 years old. (COMPOSE)

22. The university has students of over 50 __________. (NATIONAL)

23. This book is __________! I can’t stop reading it. (AMAZE)

24. Do you prefer __________ music? I have two tickets to the London Orchestra this weekend. (CLASSIC)

25. She always feels very __________ during history lessons. (BORE)

III. LISTENING

Listen to a podcast about Music and fill in the gaps the missing words. Write ONE WORD for each gap.

So now, let’s talk about different genres of music. The word “genre” means “(26) __________”. When we talk about music or movies, we use the word “genre”. Some popular genres of music include rock, jazz, country, classical, and (27) __________. Of course, there are many others too. To be honest, I don’t listen to a lot of music nowadays. But I do enjoy listening to music once in a while. For example, I sometimes listen to (28) __________ folk music. I really like this genre, especially because of the (29) __________. I like country-style instruments, like the banjo, the (30) __________, and the fiddle.

IV. READING

Read the passage and choose A, B, C, or D.

My morning routine

My name is Bob. Each day, I drive my kids to school. My daughter goes to a school far from our house. It takes 30 minutes to get there. Then, I drive my son to his school. It’s close to my office. My daughter is in the sixth grade and my son is in the second. They are both good students. My daughter usually sings her favorite songs while I am driving. My son usually sleeps.I arrive at the office at 8:30 a.m.. I say good morning to all my workmates, then I get a big cup of hot coffee. I turn on my computer and read my email. Some days I have a lot to read. Soon I need another cup of coffee.

31. Which two places are near each other?

A. Bob’s home and his daughter’s school
B. Bob’s home and his office
C. Bob’s office and his son’s school
D. Bob’s office and his daughter’s school

32. Which child is older?

A. Not given
B. Two children are of the same age
C. The daughter
D. The son

33. What happens in the car each morning?

A. The son sleeps and the daughter sings.
B. The daughter reads and the son sleeps.
C. The son and the daughter talk to each other.
D. Bob and the daughter tell jokes.

34. What happens at the office?

A. Wrkmates give Bob a big cup of hot coffee
B. Bob gets a big cup of hot coffee.
C. Bob gives all his workmates a big cup of hot coffee.
D. All of the above

35. When does Bob get his second cup of coffee?

A. after driving the children home
B. before greeting his coworkers
C. before reading his email
D. after reading his email

V. WRITING

Use the suggested words to rewrite the sentences.

36. My mother cannot sing or dance beautifully. She can run very fast. BUT

→ My mother_____________________________________.

37. I’m not happy because there is a lot of meat on my plate. TOO

→ I’m not________________________________________.

38. At 17:00, I practise the piano. I practise the piano every day. USUALLY

→ I_____________________________________________.

39. My school is behind the library. FRONT

→ The library_____________________________________.

40. Your book is interesting, but my book is even more interesting. THAN

→ My book_______________________________________.

Reorder the words and write the meaningful sentences.

41. friend / life, / she / has / brave. / a / difficult / My / is / got / but

→ _____________________________________________.

42. me, / you / ketchup? / got / Excuse / have / any

→ _____________________________________________.

43. often / school, / After / I / clubs. / participate / school / in

→ _____________________________________________.

44. Arts / best / my / next / lessons. / in / always / to / friend / I / sit

→ _____________________________________________.

45. grandmother / violin? / Can / play / the / your

→ _____________________________________________.

4.2. Đáp án đề thi học kì 1 môn Tiếng Anh 6

1.B	2. C	3. C	4. D	5. B
6. C	7. B	8. D	9. A	10. C
11. C	12. A	13. B	14. D	15. B
16. goes	17. are running	18. teaches	19. is teaching	20. doesn’t like
21. computer	22. nationalities	23. amazing	24. classical	25. bored
26. type	27. hip-hop	28 country	29. instrument	30. harmonica
31. C	32. C	33. A	34. B	35. D

36. My mother cannot sing or dance beautifully, but she can run very fast.

37. I’m not happy because there is too much meat on my plate.

38. I usually practice the piano (at 17:00).

39. The library is in front of my school.

40. My book is more interesting than your book

41. My friend has got a difficult life, but she is brave.

42. Excuse me, have you got any ketchup?

43. After school, I often participate in school clubs.

44. I always sit next to my best friend in Arts lessons.

45. Can your grandmother play the violin?

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